let be the function f(x) so we have that if x is a root also x* is a root, but we have that x is NEVER a pure imaginari number,i mean x is always different from x=ia the my question is if this means that all the roots will be real,the only counterexample i find is:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex]f(x)=(x-x_{0})(x-x_{1})(x-x_{2})........[/tex]

that is an infinite polynomial that has all its roots in the form a is a root and also a*.

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Roots of f(x)

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**