Let f (x) = (x^2 − 1)^n . Prove (by induction on r) that for r = 0, 1, 2, · · · , n,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

f^ (r) (x)(the r-th derivative of f(x)) is a polynomial whose value is 0 at no fewer than r distinct points of (−1, 1).

I'm thinking about expanding f(x) as the sum of the (n+1) terms, then it's easier to take derivatives. But I don't know how to get the roots from there then. Could anyone please give me some hints? Thanks!

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# Roots of higher derivatives

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