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Since velocity is a vector quantity I assume it follows that KE must also by a vector since KE=1/2mv squared.

Is it true to say a rotating object has zero total velocity since + = - and therefore the total KE is zero?

Thanks

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- Thread starter esmeralda4
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- #1

- 52

- 0

Since velocity is a vector quantity I assume it follows that KE must also by a vector since KE=1/2mv squared.

Is it true to say a rotating object has zero total velocity since + = - and therefore the total KE is zero?

Thanks

- #2

jtbell

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No, because kinetic energy is not a vector quantity. It is a scalar. Think of the ##v^2## as coming from the vector dot product of the velocity with itself: ##v^2 = \vec v \cdot \vec v = v_x^2 + v_y^2 + v_z^2##.

There is such a thing as rotational kinetic energy.

http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/rke.html

There is such a thing as rotational kinetic energy.

http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/rke.html

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