https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=253563 There is this post on this theorem. But the issue I wanted to discuss isn't discussed there fully(so far as I could follow the thread). So I am creating this thread for that issue, so as to avoid necro-post in that thread. My doubt is regarding m. Why do we have to find an m which lies between -m2 and m1. Why can't we directly say that there exists an m1 which is greater than nx (by Archimedian property). And then go on to say that there would be an m less than or equal to m1 which is such that nx lies between m-1 and m.Why do we have to show that -m2 is less than nx. Do we have to establish that nx lies in an interval which has both a lower and upper bound(-m2 and m1 respectively). Can't we simply establish that nx lies in an interval which has an upper bound ( i.e m1) and then go on to show existence of m ? Why do we need m2 *I am sorry if I am assuming anything which is not obvious and hence needed to be proven. I am new to analysis , hence I am not too sure of what is obvious and what is not. * is the above , the correct reason ? Still I am having difficulty understanding the need for -m2.