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Russell's paradox is:

A={x:x∉x}

Is A a subset of itself?

But my question is:

Let there be a set M such that:

M={1,2,3,4}

The now, one asks if M is a subset of itself. Most probably he would hear a know but,

since M={1,2,3,4} and again I write here M={1,2,3,4}, {1,2,3,4} can be replaced with M.

Thus,

M={1,2,3,4}

M={M}

Thus all sets are subsets of themselves. Now, there is no set x such that x∉x and thus there is no set A where A={x:x∉x}. So where is the paradox?

Russell's paradox is:

A={x:x∉x}

Is A a subset of itself?

But my question is:

Let there be a set M such that:

M={1,2,3,4}

The now, one asks if M is a subset of itself. Most probably he would hear a know but,

since M={1,2,3,4} and again I write here M={1,2,3,4}, {1,2,3,4} can be replaced with M.

Thus,

M={1,2,3,4}

M={M}

Thus all sets are subsets of themselves. Now, there is no set x such that x∉x and thus there is no set A where A={x:x∉x}. So where is the paradox?

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