# Schrödinger eq problem

1. Aug 17, 2008

### drullanorull

The problem is the picture below. The thing I dont understand, since I also have the solution, is the fact that the "radial wavefunction is normalized to 1". And all the constants before it aswell. Why cant I move out the constants in front of the integral, normalize it and then get a competely different answear? And why shall this only equal to 1?

Thanks!
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

2. Relevant equations

3. The attempt at a solution

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2. Aug 17, 2008

### G01

$$\int_{allspace}\psi^*\psi d\nu = 1$$
because $\psi^* \psi$ is a probability density and the integral gives a probability. For instance, if this integral was equal to 2, we would be saying that the particle has a 200% chance of being found anywhere. This makes no sense. The particles chance of being found "anywhere" has to be 100%. (It has be somewhere, right?) So, this is why we have to normalize our probability densities to 1. If we don't we get nonsense probabilities as answers.