May be this is a silly question, but if one converts the nonrelativistic Schrödinger equation for a free particle to an uniformly accelerated frame, is the result the same as the Schrödinger equation for a particle within a gravitational potential? I was trying some simple calculations but did not have any success.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Schrödinger equation and equivalence principle

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