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Science or pseudo-science?

  1. Mar 10, 2009 #1

    According to the Journal of Theoretics, the black hole electron mass:
    [tex]m_e = m_0 \sqrt{\frac{t_0 \alpha}{2}} = \text{kg} \cdot \text{s}^{\frac{1}{2}}[/tex]
    [tex]m_0[/tex] - Planck mass

    According to Wikipedia, the black hole electron mass:
    [tex]m_e = \left( \frac{h}{c} \right) \left( \frac{1}{4 \pi} \right) \left( \frac{c}{3 \pi h G} \left)^{\frac{1}{4}} = \text{kg} \cdot \text{s}^{\frac{1}{2}}[/tex]

    The issue that has been raised on Physics Forums is in regard to the Systeme International units of [tex]\text{kg} \cdot \text{s}^{\frac{1}{2}}[/tex], specifically the [tex]\text{s}^{\frac{1}{2}[/tex] with respect to particle mass.

    The Wikipedia article in ref. 2, simply states that the 'directly unmeasurable' time dimension is actually Planck time and is divided by the dimension [tex]\boxed{dt = 1 \; \text{s}}[/tex], which results in a 'dimensionless ratio', which also raises an issue as to substantiation.

    Unfortunately the scientific paper cited by Wikipedia and listed in ref. 3 for a black hole electron, is not legible in my Adobe Reader version. Is the black hole electron mass equation listed in this paper and is this paper pseudo-scientific?

    Are these equations scientific or pseudo-scientific?

    Reference:
    http://www.journaloftheoretics.com/Articles/2-5/bh-dimario/dimario.htm#MASS"
    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black_hole_electron#Discrete_Mass.2C_Spin_and_Stability"
    http://members.chello.nl/~n.benschop/electron.pdf" [Broken]
     
    Last edited by a moderator: May 4, 2017
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 10, 2009 #2

    cristo

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    The Journal of Theoretics is a crackpot journal.
     
  4. Mar 10, 2009 #3

    alxm

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    Sounds pretty crackpotty.

    Well obviously something defined so that it shares some properties of the electron will share other properties of the electron.

    But the magnetic moment? I've never derived it, but I always assumed it was a property of the electron's spin. (Reasoning along that if it has 'intrinsic' angular momentum and a charge then it should have an 'intrinsic' magnetic moment) How could something with the same charge and different spin (are black holes bosons or fermions? ;) ) possibly give rise to the same magnetic moment? Is this even theoretically possible?
     
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