- #1
Karlisbad
- 131
- 0
Let be the integral equation:
[tex] g(s)g(p)g(u)= \int_{0}^{\infty}dx\int_{0}^{\infty}dy\int_{0}^{\infty}dzK(sx)K(py)K(uz)f(x,y,z)
[/tex]
then my question is if we could "seek" for a solution in the form:
[tex] f(x,y,z)=A(x)A(y)A(z) [/tex] where the function A satsify (for x y and z) the integral equation:
[tex] g(s)=\int_{0}^{\infty}dxK(xs)A(x) [/tex] 8and the same for the other)
¿is this approach good?
[tex] g(s)g(p)g(u)= \int_{0}^{\infty}dx\int_{0}^{\infty}dy\int_{0}^{\infty}dzK(sx)K(py)K(uz)f(x,y,z)
[/tex]
then my question is if we could "seek" for a solution in the form:
[tex] f(x,y,z)=A(x)A(y)A(z) [/tex] where the function A satsify (for x y and z) the integral equation:
[tex] g(s)=\int_{0}^{\infty}dxK(xs)A(x) [/tex] 8and the same for the other)
¿is this approach good?