1. Mar 7, 2010 #1

   gankutsuou

   

   If (bn) is an unbounded sequence then it has a sequence (b(kn)) such that lim (1/(b(kn)))=0
   
   (where kn is a subsequence of bn )

    

   gankutsuou, Mar 7, 2010
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3. Mar 7, 2010 #2

   tiny-tim

   

   Science Advisor

   Homework Helper

   Welcome to PF!
   
   Hi gankutsuou! Welcome to PF!
   
   (try using the X₂ tag just above the Reply box )
   
   Do the obvious …
   
   

   start "If {b_n} is unbounded, then for any n … " ​

    

   tiny-tim, Mar 7, 2010

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