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If [itex]f[/itex] is continuous function and [itex](x_n)[/itex] is a sequence then [tex]x_n \to x \implies f(x_n) \to f(x)[/tex]
The converse [tex]f(x_n) \to f(x) \implies x_n \to x[/tex] in general isn't true but why is it true, for example, if [itex]f[/itex] is arctan?
The converse [tex]f(x_n) \to f(x) \implies x_n \to x[/tex] in general isn't true but why is it true, for example, if [itex]f[/itex] is arctan?