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Ted123

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The converse [tex]f(x_n) \to f(x) \implies x_n \to x[/tex] in general isn't true but why is it true, for example, if [itex]f[/itex] is arctan?

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- Thread starter Ted123
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- #1

Ted123

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The converse [tex]f(x_n) \to f(x) \implies x_n \to x[/tex] in general isn't true but why is it true, for example, if [itex]f[/itex] is arctan?

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Ted123

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