It's easy to see that [tex]\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{lnn}[/tex] does not converge. But what happens to [tex]\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(lnn)^k}[/tex] with k > 1 and why?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Can anybody help?

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Series convergence

Loading...

Similar Threads for Series convergence | Date |
---|---|

I Divergence/Convergence for Telescoping series | Mar 25, 2017 |

I Convergence of Taylor series in a point implies analyticity | Dec 10, 2016 |

A Convergence of an infinite series of exponentials | Nov 2, 2016 |

I Alternating Series, Testing for Convergence | Apr 13, 2016 |

Converging series | Jan 17, 2016 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**