- #1
mikesmith00
- 3
- 0
Is there anyway to prove that if I have (m is the lebesgue measure) m(A\B) is finite, then m(A) is finite? It seems intuitive to me, but I'm having trouble coming up with rigorous mathematical reasoning for it. B is completely contained within A. If there's anything else that might clarify this, let me know, because this is bugging me. Thanks for any help that you can offer.