#### quasar987

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**[SOLVED] Show map is injective**

**1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data**

Going crazy over this.

Let 1<p<2 and q>=2 be its conjugate exponent. I want to show that the map T: L^p(E) --> (L^q(E))*: x-->T(x) where

[tex]<T(x),y> = \int_Ex(t)y(t)dt[/tex]

is injective.

This amount to showing that if

[tex]\int_Ex(t)y(t)dt=0[/tex]

for all q-integrable functions y(t), then x(t)=0 (alsmost everywhere)

Should be easy but I've been at this for an hour and I don't see it!

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