Show that if n belongs to N, and:
An: = (1 + 1/n)^n
then An < An+1 for all natural n. (Hint, look at the ratios An+1/An, and use Bernoulli's inequality)
The Attempt at a Solution
I think i have a vague idea of what to do here, like im sure induction is involved in this proof. However, im unsure how bernoullis inequality and the ratios help in the proof, and how they should be used. Can anyone help me please?