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Simple equation

  1. May 7, 2009 #1
    Why does it follow from

    \frac{d}{d\beta}(-\Sigma_{i=1}^n[\frac{(y_i - \alpha - \beta x_i)^2}{2 \sigma^2}]) = 0


    \Sigma_{i=1}^n x_i(y_i - \alpha - \beta x_1) = 0

  2. jcsd
  3. May 7, 2009 #2


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    Homework Helper

    What happens when you take the derivative?

    This one won't be hard ;-)
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