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Simple equation

  • Thread starter superwolf
  • Start date
  • #1
176
0
Why does it follow from

[tex]
\frac{d}{d\beta}(-\Sigma_{i=1}^n[\frac{(y_i - \alpha - \beta x_i)^2}{2 \sigma^2}]) = 0
[/tex]

that

[tex]
\Sigma_{i=1}^n x_i(y_i - \alpha - \beta x_1) = 0
[/tex]

?
 

Answers and Replies

  • #2
diazona
Homework Helper
2,175
6
What happens when you take the derivative?

This one won't be hard ;-)
 

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