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Simple integral

  1. Dec 1, 2008 #1
    Can somebody explain to me why
    [tex]\int^{1}_{0}sin( \pi x) sin (n \pi x) dx[/tex] equals 1 if n = 1 and 0 for n >= 2? (n is an integer)
    Last edited: Dec 1, 2008
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 1, 2008 #2
    Just to give a hint: trigonometric addition formulas...
    If this isn't sufficient to solve it, ask again.
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