Simple integral

  • Thread starter leopard
  • Start date
  • #1
125
0
Can somebody explain to me why
[tex]\int^{1}_{0}sin( \pi x) sin (n \pi x) dx[/tex] equals 1 if n = 1 and 0 for n >= 2? (n is an integer)
 
Last edited:

Answers and Replies

  • #2
21
1
Just to give a hint: trigonometric addition formulas...
If this isn't sufficient to solve it, ask again.
 

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