Can anyone tell me if the universal quantifier distributes over material conditionals in standard first order logic? Does (v)(Mv → Pv) imply {v)Mv -> (v)Pv? Does the implication work the other way too? Thanks.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Simple logic question

Loading...

Similar Threads - Simple logic question | Date |
---|---|

B Simple question about compactness | Feb 22, 2018 |

B Simple Question About Term(s) re: Fermat | Jan 19, 2018 |

B A rather simple question | Dec 13, 2017 |

Incredibly simple question about the logic behind systems of equations | May 9, 2012 |

Simple maths logic problem | Sep 20, 2008 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**