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**simple proof help??**

## Homework Statement

The question states: Let rεQ+ Prove that if (r^2+1)/(r)≤1, then (r^2+2)/(r)≤2.

I wanted to prove it trivially by proving it is true for all Q(x). would this be a correct way?

## Homework Equations

## The Attempt at a Solution

Since (r^2+2)/(r)≤2= (r-1)^2+1≤ 0 it follows (r-1)^2≤-1 for all rεQ+. Therefore (r^2+2)/(r)≤2.