Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

Simple question about vielbeins

  1. Jan 27, 2015 #1
    If $$e^1$$ is a form like the ones in tetrad formalism (vielbeins). If we have $$e^1 . e^1$$ can we treat those as basis like $$i.i=1$$?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 29, 2015 #2
    I think the reason you haven't gotten any answers is that the question is unclear.
     
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thread via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook




Similar Discussions: Simple question about vielbeins
Loading...