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1. Jan 27, 2015

### PhyAmateur

If $$e^1$$ is a form like the ones in tetrad formalism (vielbeins). If we have $$e^1 . e^1$$ can we treat those as basis like $$i.i=1$$?

2. Jan 29, 2015

### pellman

I think the reason you haven't gotten any answers is that the question is unclear.