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Simple question about vielbeins

  1. Jan 27, 2015 #1
    If $$e^1$$ is a form like the ones in tetrad formalism (vielbeins). If we have $$e^1 . e^1$$ can we treat those as basis like $$i.i=1$$?
  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 29, 2015 #2
    I think the reason you haven't gotten any answers is that the question is unclear.
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