Just a quick question. I finished an expectation value sum and noticed that the given solution had me stumped. Ive attached a quick picture of the simplifying process which was given as the solution. The only thing i don't understand is how to get the value iCm/(pi*hbar)^1/2. I don't know how it simplifies to that as i get another answer. You'll have to have a look at the attached picture to see what i mean. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.