Let a0, a1, a2, a3 be arbitrary real numbers, and let f(x) = a0 + a1*x + a2*x^2 + a3*x^3 Show that the approximating the integral [tex]\int f(x)dx[/tex][/tex] ( Couldn't figure out the bounds using latex but the integral is from pi to 42) with Simpson's rule yields the exact value of this integral. My initial thought was to go to the error bound. k > or = f''''(x) ......so k > or = to 0 And since K is a coefficient in the numerator the error is 0. But that seems way too easy. My professor likes giving 10 hour take home tests, so I can't be right. So, what did I miss? Or by some odd chance am I right?