# Solve this integral for p

1. Apr 8, 2009

### Dell

for which values of p does the integral converge

0$$\int$$pi/2(tan(x))pdx

i know there is a rule that a$$\int$$1/xαdx
if
α>1 does converge
α<1 does not converge

so can i apply the same logic here saying
0$$\int$$pi/21/(tan(x))-pdx
so if

-p>1 does converge
-p<1 does not converge

or is this not good since i have d(x) and not d(tan(x))??

do i need to say tanx=t dt=dx/cos2x
if so how do i continue from here since ill have

$$\int$$tp/cos2x dt
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