Some help needed

  • Thread starter Neitrino
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  • #2
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Sorry but,

Could at least tell me why my question is not getting any replies???
Im very wondered.... its too nonsensical :confused: ? If so what do I say wrong?
 
  • #3
33
1
I think the expresion [tex] <0|\phi(x)\phi(y)|0> [/tex]
survives [tex] <0|a_p a_q^\dag|0> [/tex] means:
[tex] <0|a_p^\dag a_q^\dag|0> [/tex]=0 and [tex] <0|a_p a_q|0> [/tex]=0;
only [tex] <0|a_p a_q^\dag|0> [/tex] survives, of course p and q are arbitary,
not single p and single q. the final result will be an integral over all possible p or q.

(2) [tex] <0|\phi(x)|[/tex], is just complex conjugate of (2.41).
there is no special physical significance here, the author, I guess, just mentioned NR
case to make the formula be easily understood.
 
Last edited:
  • #4
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snooper007 said:
[tex] <0|\phi(x)=<x|[/tex] this is a simple calculation
(as u posted in homework section)

Dear Snooper007 thks for ur reply..
[tex] <0|\phi(x)[/tex] it is a complex conjugation of [tex] \phi(x)|0>[/tex]
So [tex] <0|\phi(x)=\int{\frac{d^3 p}{(2\pi)^3}\frac{1}{2E_p}e^{ipx}<p|[/tex]

[tex] <0|\phi(x)=<x|[/tex] < - ?

and with regard to question 1) I still dont feel comfort with understanding..
seems I did no understand ur reply as it should be
 
  • #5
vanesch
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I wonder in what colleges one studies Peskin and Schroeder...
 

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