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Spin 1/2 vs Spin 2

  1. Jan 30, 2008 #1
    As mentionned in the "A question about nonlocality" thread,
    the electron (a spin 1/2 particle) must turn twice to be back in its original position (so that its complex wave function is identically restore).

    Now my question is this:
    If a spin 1/2 particle must turn 2*360 for it's wave function to be identical, can we say that a spin 2 particle must turn 360/2 for it's wave function to be identical ?
  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 30, 2008 #2


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  4. Jan 31, 2008 #3
    Here is a related quote for those interested.
    (but it's a bit more than what I can understand myself)
  5. Jan 31, 2008 #4
    No guys i think you are making something wrong....
    Representations on wavefunctions by SU(2) is siglevalued on integers spin (s=1,2,3..)
    and double valued on half integers (s=1/2,3/2..).
    Thats the only motivation...

    regards marco.
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