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Spin of the pion

  1. Feb 5, 2010 #1
    Hi,

    I have a question from Perkins:

    I'm not sure I understand the line in boldface. If [itex]s_\pi = 1[/itex] then why is [itex]S_z = 0[/itex]?

    Thanks!
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 5, 2010 #2
    Conservation of angular momentum. two is larger than one!
     
  4. Feb 5, 2010 #3
    Yes. Right, but does Sz = 0 explicitly conserve angular momentum? How do I convince myself?
     
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