# Spins and particle decays

1. Dec 10, 2012

### MarkovMarakov

Does the following argument correct?

Suppose there is a particle $p$ that can either decay into $\{$a spin-1 and a spin-0 particle$\}$ or two spin-0 particles, then the lowest possible spin of $p$ is 2. This is because we need the spin to be even and large enough to accommodate the spin-1 product.
(Assuming that the total ang momentum is conserved in the decay.)

$p$ is such that $p\to \pi^-+\rho^+$ and $p\to \xi+\xi$ where $\xi$ is a particle of spin 0. I want to know the lowest possible spin for $p$.
By the way, would the intrinsic parity of $p$ be negative, since I think each of $\rho^+$ and $\pi^-$ have negative intrinsic parity?