Does the following argument correct?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Suppose there is a particle $p$ that can either decay into $ \{$a spin-1 and a spin-0 particle$\}$ or two spin-0 particles, then the lowest possible spin of $p$ is 2. This is because we need the spin to be even and large enough to accommodate the spin-1 product.

(Assuming that the total ang momentum is conserved in the decay.)

Thank you in advance!

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# Spins and particle decays

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