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Spins and particle decays

  1. Dec 10, 2012 #1
    Does the following argument correct?

    Suppose there is a particle $p$ that can either decay into $ \{$a spin-1 and a spin-0 particle$\}$ or two spin-0 particles, then the lowest possible spin of $p$ is 2. This is because we need the spin to be even and large enough to accommodate the spin-1 product.
    (Assuming that the total ang momentum is conserved in the decay.)

    Thank you in advance!
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 11, 2012 #2

    [itex]p[/itex] is such that [itex]p\to \pi^-+\rho^+[/itex] and [itex]p\to \xi+\xi[/itex] where [itex]\xi[/itex] is a particle of spin 0. I want to know the lowest possible spin for [itex]p[/itex].
    I am assuming that conservation of total angular momentum and parity holds.

    By the way, would the intrinsic parity of [itex]p[/itex] be negative, since I think each of [itex]\rho^+[/itex] and [itex]\pi^-[/itex] have negative intrinsic parity?
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