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Spivak problem

  1. Jul 20, 2008 #1
    f,g integrable on [a,b]

    how does
    \\integral from a to b of (f- lamda*g)^2 = 0 imply

    (\\integral (fg))^(1/2) =< (\\int f^2)^(1/2)(\\int g^2)^(1/2) ?


    Thank you!
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 20, 2008 #2
    I still clearly don't have the hang of Latex, either.
  4. Jul 20, 2008 #3
    here's how it should look

    how does
    \int^b_a(f- \lambda g)^2 = 0 \rightarrow

    (\int(f*g))^{1/2} =< (\int f^2)^{1/2}(\int g^2)^{1/2} ?

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