Finding the Lagrangian for a 3D Spring Pendulum

In summary, the student attempted to solve a problem involving a spring pendulum by using spherical and Cartesian coordinates, but found that the resulting Lagrangian was too long and complicated to work with. After simplifying the equation, they found that they needed to add two terms to the Lagrangian to make it work.
  • #36
Ok before putting an end to this thread, I'd like some help to get the initial conditions.
The initial position of the mass is (0,1,0) in Cartesian coordinates. So it makes [tex](1,\pi /2,\pi /2)[/tex] in spherical.
The initial velocity of the mass is (0,0,-1/2) in Cartesian coordinates. I'm not sure how to convert this into spherical ones.
An attempt of mine is to write [tex]\vec v_0=-\frac{1}{2}\hat z=\frac{\sin (\theta) \hat \theta}{2}-\frac{\cos (\theta)\hat r}{2}[/tex]. I don't know how to proceed from here.

Edit: Hmm, is it just [tex](1/2,0, \pi)[/tex]?
Edit 2: Well I think so. This would mean [tex]\dot r (0)=1/2[/tex], [tex]\dot \phi (0)=0[/tex] and [tex]\dot \theta (0)=\pi[/tex]. I hope someone can confirm this.
 
Last edited:
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  • #37
Any idea? I'm not sure I have the right initial conditions. I hope someone can confirm if they're good.
 
  • #38
It does look fine to me, the (0.5,0,pi):

[tex]r=\sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}=\sqrt{1/4}=1/2[/tex]

[tex]\theta=\cos^{-1}\left[\frac{z}{r}\right]=\cos^{-1}\left[1\right]=0[/tex]

[tex]\phi=\tan^{-1}\left[\frac{x}{y}\right]\rightarrow\pi[/tex]EDIT: Technically, [itex]\phi[/itex] is undefined because x=0 divided by y=0 is undefined, but given your position it should be okay (note that my [itex]\phi[/itex] is your [itex]\theta[/itex], I was taught coordinates this way and always use it)
 
  • #39
Ok thank you jdwood983. Problem solved. I'll now tackle the numerical part!
 

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