# Strange limit?

1. Apr 16, 2007

### pivoxa15

Take n/(n+1)-n/(n+2) as n->infinity results in the limit 0

But take the same equation convert it to n/(n+1)/(n+2) as n-> infinity results in the limit 1.

What is going on? The expression is the same yet you get two different limits. Something is wrong.

2. Apr 16, 2007

### Curious3141

Correct.

How? The expression is [n/(n+1)]/(n+2). Working from left to right, the limit reduces to (n/n)/(n+2) = 1/(n+2) = 0. (Very sloppy, but I can't do the tex now).

3. Apr 16, 2007

### pivoxa15

I see. I made a mistake in my OP.

4. Apr 16, 2007

### HallsofIvy

Staff Emeritus
?? And if you were to "convert" it into something else it is not equal to you would get yet a different answer! Garbage in, garbage out.

5. Apr 16, 2007

### Curious3141

The expressions are identically equal.