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Strange limit?

  1. Apr 16, 2007 #1
    Take n/(n+1)-n/(n+2) as n->infinity results in the limit 0

    But take the same equation convert it to n/(n+1)/(n+2) as n-> infinity results in the limit 1.

    What is going on? The expression is the same yet you get two different limits. Something is wrong.
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 16, 2007 #2


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    How? The expression is [n/(n+1)]/(n+2). Working from left to right, the limit reduces to (n/n)/(n+2) = 1/(n+2) = 0. (Very sloppy, but I can't do the tex now).
  4. Apr 16, 2007 #3
    I see. I made a mistake in my OP.
  5. Apr 16, 2007 #4


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    ?? And if you were to "convert" it into something else it is not equal to you would get yet a different answer! Garbage in, garbage out.
  6. Apr 16, 2007 #5


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    The expressions are identically equal.
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