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quasar987

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I got this question here that says there are 1000 neutrons in a one-dimensional infinite potential barrier box of lenght L and at t=0, each has a wave function given by

[tex]\Psi(x,0) = Ax(x-L)[/tex]

But isn't this a contradiction? We have derived earlier in class that if a particle is to be a in a box at V = 0, then its wave function will have the form of a sine, not this polynomial.

The fact that there are many neutrons in the box shouldn't change the form of the wave function, since there is not potential energy associated with the presence of other neutrons around.

There is also the possibility that it is not really possible that the wave function be like that and this problem is purely artificial. I think it is never a good idea to do this without making mention of it as it confuses the hell out of us. :grumpy:

[tex]\Psi(x,0) = Ax(x-L)[/tex]

But isn't this a contradiction? We have derived earlier in class that if a particle is to be a in a box at V = 0, then its wave function will have the form of a sine, not this polynomial.

The fact that there are many neutrons in the box shouldn't change the form of the wave function, since there is not potential energy associated with the presence of other neutrons around.

There is also the possibility that it is not really possible that the wave function be like that and this problem is purely artificial. I think it is never a good idea to do this without making mention of it as it confuses the hell out of us. :grumpy:

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