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Strange Question Regarding Pi

  1. Jan 2, 2008 #1
    Is there a proof or disproof that any given finite string of digits will occur somewhere in Pi?
     
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  3. Jan 2, 2008 #2

    HallsofIvy

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    No, there isn't. That would be equivalent, I think, to saying that [itex]\pi[/itex] is a "normal number" and that has not been proved or disproved.
     
  4. Jan 2, 2008 #3

    arildno

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    It smells equivalent to the property of normalness, but I'm not sure if it is easy to prove..
     
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