im stuck on this proof can anyone help? Is it true that for all natural numbers n, for each natural number x, x^n − x is divisible by n? If so, prove it; if not, explain why not. so far i have gotten: make x=1, ((1)^n) -1 = 0, therefore x=1 is divisible by n assume true for x=k, ie: (k^n) - k is divisible by n make x=k+1; ((k+1)^n)-(k+1).......and thats it!!!