Proofs for 1+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+\frac{1}{4^2}+\ldots=\frac{\pi^2}{6}

In summary, the conversation discusses various proofs involving the sum of infinite series, Fibonacci numbers, and the Riemann Zeta function. The speaker mentions using induction to prove some of the equations, but is looking for alternative methods to prove them without using induction. They also mention Euler's discovery of the sum of zeta(2) and suggest using Fourier series to prove some of the equations. The speaker thanks the other person for their help and welcomes any additional information.
  • #1
murshid_islam
457
19
can anyone help me with the proofs:

[tex]1+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+\frac{1}{4^2}+\ldots=\frac{\pi^2}{6}[/tex]

if [tex]F_i[/tex] is the ith Fibonacci number, then

[tex]F_1+F_2+F_3+\ldots+F_n=F_{n+2}-1[/tex]

[tex]F_2+F_4+F_6+\ldots+F_{2n}=F_{2n+1}-1[/tex]

[tex]F_1+F_3+F_5+\ldots+F_{2n-1}=F_{2n}[/tex]

[tex]F_1^2+F_2^2+F_3^2+\ldots+F_n^2=F_nF_{n+1}[/tex]

I proved the last four using induction. But how can i prove them without using induction?
 
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  • #2
murshid_islam said:
can anyone help me with the proofs:

[tex]1+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+\frac{1}{4^2}+\ldots=\frac{\pi^2}{6}[/tex]

if [tex]F_i[/tex] is the ith Fibonacci number, then

[tex]F_1+F_2+F_3+\ldots+F_n=F_{n+2}-1[/tex]

[tex]F_2+F_4+F_6+\ldots+F_{2n}=F_{2n+1}-1[/tex]

[tex]F_1+F_3+F_5+\ldots+F_{2n-1}=F_{2n}[/tex]

[tex]F_1^2+F_2^2+F_3^2+\ldots+F_n^2=F_nF_{n+1}[/tex]

I proved the last four using induction. But how can i prove them without using induction?
euler found your sum zeta(2) by writing
sin(x)=x(1-x^2/(k pi)^2)(1-x^4/(k pi)^4)(1-x^6/(k pi)^6)...
and expanding the product and setting it equal x-x^3/3!+x^5/5!+...
It is often done as a routine exercise with Fourier series.
There are many ways to prove it.
see
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/RiemannZetaFunctionZeta2.html
for the other 4 what's wrong with induction?
Fn=(a^n-b^n)/(a-b)
where a=.5(1+sqrt(5)) b=.5(1-sqrt(5))
so you could express those sums as geometric series among other methods
see
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/FibonacciNumber.html
 
  • #3
lurflurf said:
for the other 4 what's wrong with induction?

there's nothing wrong with induction. but i wanted get the right hand sides from the left hand sides (from scratch), if you know what i mean.

anyway, thanks very much for the help. and additional information is always welcome.
 

1. How do you prove the infinite series 1 + 1/2^2 + 1/3^2 + 1/4^2 + ... = pi^2/6?

The proof for this infinite series, also known as the Basel problem, was first given by Leonhard Euler in the 18th century. It involves using complex analysis and the Euler product formula to show that the series converges to pi^2/6.

2. What is the significance of this series in mathematics?

The proof of 1 + 1/2^2 + 1/3^2 + 1/4^2 + ... = pi^2/6 has significant implications in number theory and analysis. It shows the connection between the seemingly unrelated concepts of infinite series and the value of pi.

3. Can you explain the concept of convergence in this proof?

In this proof, convergence refers to the idea that the infinite series 1 + 1/2^2 + 1/3^2 + 1/4^2 + ... approaches a finite limit, in this case, pi^2/6. This means that as more terms are added to the series, the sum gets closer and closer to this limit.

4. Are there any other proofs for this series?

Yes, there are several other proofs for the infinite series 1 + 1/2^2 + 1/3^2 + 1/4^2 + ... = pi^2/6. Some of these proofs use different mathematical techniques, such as trigonometric identities and Fourier series.

5. What are some real-world applications of this proof?

The proof of 1 + 1/2^2 + 1/3^2 + 1/4^2 + ... = pi^2/6 has many practical applications in fields such as physics, engineering, and statistics. It is used to calculate the values of various physical constants, as well as in the analysis of data and signals.

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