I HAVE searched the threads before posting this but I didn't find the same question. Anyway, the question is T-F: A subset of linearly dependent set is linearly dependent. I think it is F, because for non-zero linearly dep. set a proof can be constructed so that some matrices can have non-zero coefficient while the other matrices -- a zero coefficient. But among those that have a zero coeff. (or if a subset is defined as some elements of zero-coeff. subset and non-zero-coeff.) there may not be a linear dependence necessarily. Is my proof/reasoning correct? Thanks in advance.