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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hello,

In my probability course it is used that [itex]\frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=3}^n \frac{1}{\log k} \propto \frac{1}{\log n}[/itex].

I hope I'm not being daft: can somebody enlighten me on why this is so?

In my probability course it is used that [itex]\frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=3}^n \frac{1}{\log k} \propto \frac{1}{\log n}[/itex].

I hope I'm not being daft: can somebody enlighten me on why this is so?