What does the sum of residues being zero mean for this integral?

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In summary, the conversation is about calculating the integral \int_0^{+\infty}\frac{x^2}{1+x^6}dx using the calculus of residues. The person discussing the problem found the poles and residues for the integral and calculated them using a semi-circular contour from -R to R, with R->infinity. However, when summing the residues, they found that the sum was zero, leading to confusion. They also tried using a smaller contour, but still got a result that pointed to the integral being equal to zero. The conversation ends with a suggestion to approach the integral using elementary methods instead of complex analysis.
  • #1
taylormade
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Homework Statement


Calculate
[tex]\int_0^{+\infty}\frac{\x^2}{1+x^6}dx[/tex]

I found the poles/residues for this guy, and did the integral over the semicircular contour from -R to R, with R->infinity.

I get poles that contribute at:

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-4*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-12*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-20*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

Where I'm confused, it that when you sum the residues (I.e. 2*pi*i(Sum of Residues)), the sum of the residues is zero.

I also tried doing this integral over a smaller contour, from 0 to theta = 2pi/6 - and get similar weird answer.

My actual question is - What does this mean? I'm inclined to say that this integral equals zero - but looking at the function, that doesn't make sense to me.

Where have I gone off the rails?

I apologize - I'm still not very good with the Latex stuff.
 
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  • #2
taylormade said:

Homework Statement


Calculate
[tex]\int_0^{+\infty}\frac{\x^2}{1+x^6}dx[/tex]

I found the poles/residues for this guy, and did the integral over the semicircular contour from -R to R, with R->infinity.

I get poles that contribute at:

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-4*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-12*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-20*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

Where I'm confused, it that when you sum the residues (I.e. 2*pi*i(Sum of Residues)), the sum of the residues is zero.

I also tried doing this integral over a smaller contour, from 0 to theta = 2pi/6 - and get similar weird answer.

My actual question is - What does this mean? I'm inclined to say that this integral equals zero - but looking at the function, that doesn't make sense to me.

Where have I gone off the rails?

I apologize - I'm still not very good with the Latex stuff.

You mean [tex]\int_0^{+\infty}\frac{x^2}{1+x^6}dx[/tex] (don't put a back slash in front of the x in the numerator because the x does not show up!)

I don't see why youhave exponentials in your answer, furst of all.

Clearly, the integral is not zero. How did you find the poles and residues? You have to be careful if the poles are not simple poles!
 
  • #3
nrqed said:
You mean [tex]\int_0^{+\infty}\frac{x^2}{1+x^6}dx[/tex] (don't put a back slash in front of the x in the numerator because the x does not show up!)

I don't see why youhave exponentials in your answer, furst of all.

Clearly, the integral is not zero. How did you find the poles and residues? You have to be careful if the poles are not simple poles!

-sigh- yes - that is what I meant. Thanks!

OK - for x^6+1, there would be 6 poles, all at x^6 = -1, and they would be simple poles (right?). (well, z^6 = -1, after converting to the contour).

I took those poles to be z=e^pi*i/6, e^3*pi*i/6 and e^5*pi*i/6 as the only ones contained in the semi-circular contour.

I did the residue calculation - (z-zo*f(z)), then took the limit as z->those poles.

And I get those residues in my first post (I messed up and called them poles) :( .

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-4*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-12*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-20*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

The sum of those residues = 0, Hence my confusion.

I also tried a different approach and used a contour that only extends to 2*pi/6, and only contains the first pole, at z=e^pi*i/6.

When I work through that I get another result that points to the integral = 0, which just baffles me.
 
Last edited:
  • #4
I'm wondering why you are bothering to use complex analysis when this is an elementary integral!

[tex]\int^{\infty}_0 \frac{x^2}{1+x^6} dx[/tex]

Let u=x^3, then du= 3x^2. Hence the integral becomes
[tex]\frac{1}{3}\int^{\infty}_0 \frac{1}{1+u^2} du = \frac{1}{3} \left( \arctan \infty - \arctan 0 \right) = \frac{\pi}{12}[/tex]
 
  • #5
Gib Z said:
I'm wondering why you are bothering to use complex analysis when this is an elementary integral!

[tex]\int^{\infty}_0 \frac{x^2}{1+x^6} dx[/tex]

Let u=x^3, then du= 3x^2. Hence the integral becomes
[tex]\frac{1}{3}\int^{\infty}_0 \frac{1}{1+u^2} du = \frac{1}{3} \left( \arctan \infty - \arctan 0 \right) = \frac{\pi}{12}[/tex]

I know - because the Prof says: "Solve Using Calculus of Residues".

I think I figured it out. I'm just beat from working on these - easy stuff is giving me fits.
 

What is the concept of "Sum of Residues Equals Zero"?

The sum of residues equals zero is a mathematical concept that is used in the field of complex analysis. It states that the sum of all the residues of a function around a closed loop is equal to zero. A residue is a value that is left over after a function is integrated around a closed loop.

Why is the "Sum of Residues Equals Zero" important in complex analysis?

The concept of "Sum of Residues Equals Zero" is important in complex analysis because it allows for the evaluation of complex integrals using the residues of a function. This simplifies the integration process and makes it easier to solve complex problems in mathematics and physics. Additionally, it is a fundamental concept in the study of complex functions and their behavior.

How is the "Sum of Residues Equals Zero" used in practical applications?

The "Sum of Residues Equals Zero" concept has various practical applications, such as in the analysis of electric circuits, signal processing, and fluid dynamics. In electric circuits, it is used to determine the current and voltage at specific points. In signal processing, it is used to analyze signals and filter out unwanted frequencies. In fluid dynamics, it is used to analyze the flow of fluids around obstacles.

What are some common misconceptions about the "Sum of Residues Equals Zero"?

One common misconception about the "Sum of Residues Equals Zero" is that it only applies to functions with complex variables. However, this concept can also be applied to real-valued functions. Another misconception is that the residues must be calculated for every point on a closed loop, when in reality, they only need to be calculated at the singular points of the function.

How can the "Sum of Residues Equals Zero" be proved?

The "Sum of Residues Equals Zero" can be proved using the Cauchy Integral Theorem, which states that the value of an integral around a closed loop is equal to the sum of the residues of a function within the loop. This theorem is a fundamental tool in complex analysis and is used to prove many other theorems related to the behavior of complex functions.

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