I don't have background in analysis, but was looking for(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

a simple explanation(proof?) of this statement,

Over a compact set, a differentiable function V Rn-> R, with V<0 in that set, then sup(V)<0 in that set

Actually I'm not certain if I interpreted the statement right, so maybe the statement as it is might be wrong/incomplete.

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Sup of a function

Loading...

Similar Threads - function | Date |
---|---|

I Integrate a function over a closed circle-like contour around an arbitrary point on a torus | Saturday at 12:51 PM |

B Function rules question | Saturday at 9:49 AM |

I Looking for additional material about limits and distributions | Feb 17, 2018 |

I Why does this concavity function not work for this polar fun | Jan 26, 2018 |

I Differentiation of sin function where's my mistake? | Dec 21, 2017 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**