We are supposed to use taylor's inequality to estimate the accuracy of the approximation of the taylor polynomial within the interval given.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

so, f(x) = cos x , a = pi/3, n=4 and the interval is 0<= x <= 2pi/3

the fifth derivative is -sin x

to get the M in taylor's inequality, wouldn't we have to plug 0 into |-sin x|?

Why does the book say |-sin x|<= 1 = M?

Does it work differently with trig functions?

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# Homework Help: Taylor inequality

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