Hello all, This is very simple however I would like to understand why this is true. According to the definition of a limit, if we have limit of f(x) as x approaches infinity = a then for every ε>0 there exists a real number M such that if x>M then the absolute value of f(x)-a < ε. This is very strange to me. I did not study this definition when studying limits before. I know what limits mean but this definition seems odd to me. If someone could explain why this is true I would greatly appreciate it. Also, is the definition the same when the limit approaches any x other than infinity? Thanks in advance.