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**At first I must admit that I am a novice, know a little about physics. The analysis below most probably full of flaws.**

We know that t=t0/{1-(v/c)^2}, t0 is the time experienced by a person traveling at v speed in a space ship, t is the time that is experienced by a stationary observer on the earth.

None of the reference frame is more fundamental than other. So we can assume the space ship to be stationary and the planet earth is in motion( i.e -v). So easily opposite of the formula can be proven. That is : t0=t/{1-(v/c)^2},

In the first case time is dilated for the spaceman. And in the second it is true for the person on the earth. Which one is the truth? If both, How possible!

Let's think of a particular case, a vehicle can travel at such speed that it can dilate time, 5 fold than a stationary observer (relative to the earth). So for every ticking of second in a clock placed inside the vehicle, there will be 5 on the clock of a stationary observer. Let's place two stationary clock along the path of the vehicle. Say, the vehicle meet the first clock when both clock gave the same reading. Let it be 00:00. When the vehicle rider reached the second clock his clock showed that one second has passed( i.e 00:01). So the reading on the stationary clock would be 00:05.

This strongly shows that time ONLY dilated for the vehicle rider.

Further examples are those when an austraunaut departs at nearby speed of light, when he returns he returns to a different earth. Many years passes when he spent some hours at a speed of 99% that of light.This also shows that time ONLY dilated for the austraunaut, not for the dwellers on the earth. WhY?? Why time dilation is prefered for someone in relative motion to earth. When a reference frame is in motion relative to other frame, we can assume any of them to be in motion and other stationary. So there is a symmetry and we can expect simmilar result in both of the frame.

**I know I am wrong, sillyish. But I can't get it. :'-(**

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