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The Graviton, what?

  1. Apr 2, 2006 #1
    If Spin is 'moment of inertia' (I) x 'angular frequency' (w), what does it mean when we say a particle has spin = 1 or spin =2 like in the theoretical Graviton's case?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 3, 2006 #2

    dextercioby

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    Who claimed that "Spin is 'moment of inertia' (I) x 'angular frequency' (w)" ?

    Daniel.
     
  4. Apr 3, 2006 #3

    jtbell

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    Electrons and other fundamental particles are not little tiny pellets that spin about their axes. As far as we know, they are pointlike and cannot be thought of as having a moment of inertia or an angular velocity. Nevertheless, they have intrinsic angular momentum, which cannot be "pictured" in any classical-like fashion as far as I know.

    Electron "spins" do contribute to the total angular momentum of macroscopic objects. This is demonstraed by the Einstein-de Haas effect.
     
  5. Apr 3, 2006 #4
    in short, spin in quantum mechanics cannot be visualized classically. Unfortunately, we have to take it as an abstract mathematical property of any particle, like charge, mass etc.
     
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