Hey all, I have a physics problem here and I have come across an odd scenario, I wonder if you could tell me if this means that I have the wrong answer. I have an ideal bar rotating about an arbitrary axis. The angular velocity vector [tex]\omega[/tex] is NOT colinear with the angular momentum vector. However, [tex]\omega[/tex] is constant, so when I try to find the torque on the bar by using hte time dervitive of the angular momentum vector, I get 0. My question is this: is it possible for there to be 0 torque on the bar if the angular momentum and angular velocity vectors are not parallel? Because I was under the impression that the only time when they were not parallel was when there was some applied torque, but I have done this problem using three different methods now, all with the same result.