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Torque/Translation Equilibrium

  1. Sep 27, 2009 #1
    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

    We recently did a lab where we calculated various torque values for various systems. Basically, we attached mass by a hanger at different areas on a balanced/pivoted meter stick.

    At the end of the lab, he asks the question "How is the condition for translation equilibrium Fnet = 0 satisfied in this experiment?

    I think I understand why, but I can't really explain it in a comprehensible manner.

    3. The attempt at a solution

    I believe it is because we're establishing rotational equilibrium and at equilibrium any net force acting on the system is 0 (by definition). But.. how do I explain this? The forces are all different (considering Mass * Acc Due To Gravity), but they even out because they're placed at different distances from the pivot point to put the system into rotational equilibrium.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 27, 2009 #2
    Anyone? :(
     
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