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We know that frequency of induced emf in secondary coil remains same as frequency of applied voltage in primary coil and I have read that its reason is " there is no relative motion between the coils..".
Actually I am not getting the reason , maybe some fact or concept has slipped from my mind but I can't recollect how frequency is dependent on relative motion between the coils..
Please clear it out..
Actually I am not getting the reason , maybe some fact or concept has slipped from my mind but I can't recollect how frequency is dependent on relative motion between the coils..
Please clear it out..