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Let [itex] \psi (x) [/itex] be a one dimension wave function. We suppose [itex] \langle p \rangle =q [/itex] How can I compute the new [itex]\langle p \rangle[/itex] when we set [itex]\psi _1 (x) := e^{\frac{ip_0x}{\hbar}}\psi (x) [/itex] I want to comute it with the formula [tex]\langle p \rangle=-i \hbar \int \psi _1^* \frac{\partial \psi _1}{\partial x}\mathrm{d}x=q + p_0 \int \psi ^* (x) \psi (x) e^{\frac{ip_0}{\hbar}} \mathrm{d}x[/tex] but I'm not able to compute the last term, which I want to be equal to zero.

Thank you for your help.

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# Translation invariant for p

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