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hello,

consider the mappings: (R: A-->B)

Suppose T: C-->A and S: C-->A satisfy RT = RS then T = S

prove that there exists a; b: B-->A such that bR = idA (identity of A)

well, im not sure if I can say that b (inverse) = R

since b maps B to A .. and R maps A to B.... and if i can say that...

how do i approach the proof?

I know that RT = RS then T = S.. should i work with this.? using b (inverse)...

or should i try to see if R or b is injective?....

ie. b(inverse)T = b(inverse)S ... ??

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# Tricky algebra proof

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