True or false :

It is possible to have motion in the absence of a force (F)
beacuse no motion without force

If an object is not moving , no external force acts on it (T)
beacuse each object will not move unless a force acts on it

If a single force acts on an object , the object accelerates ( T)
beacuse every object has force has accelerates

If an object experiences an acceleration , a force acts on it ( T)
beacuse every object has force has accelerates

If an object experences no acceleration , no external force acts on it ( T)
beacuse every object has no force has no accelerates

If the net force acting on an object is in the x direction the object moves in the x direction ( T )
beacuse when force effet on the object will go same direction of force

## The Attempt at a Solution

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phyzguy
By my count you have 2/6 correct, 4/6 wrong. Think about the difference between velocity and acceleration.

Hurkyl
Staff Emeritus
Gold Member
It would be much easier to help if you explained your reasoning.

I explained my reasoning by apply newton second law

jgens
Gold Member
I explained my reasoning by apply newton second law
Why don't you explain what you think motion means? The term appears in a number of problems that you got wrong, so you might want to be more specific about things.

I get the similar count as phyzguy. Try explaning the reasoning to each prob .. exactly why you chose whether true or false.

?????

HallsofIvy
Homework Helper
?????
Do you not know what "explain" and "reason" mean?

HallsofIvy
Homework Helper
True or false :
I can't imagine how you would answer these "true" or "false". Many of them simply don't make sense.

It is possible to have motion in the absence of a force (F)
beacuse no motion without force
The 'because' seems to contradict the statement!

If an object is not moving , no external force acts on it (T)
beacuse each object will not move unless a force acts on it
Again, a non-sequitur. "because each object will not move unless a force acts on it" would explain "if an object is moving there must be an external force acting on it", not the statement given.

If a single force acts on an object , the object accelerates ( T)
beacuse every object has force has accelerates
Okay- not very good English, but true.

If an object experiences an acceleration , a force acts on it ( T)
beacuse every object has force has accelerates
Once again a "p implies q because q implies p" statement. Not logical.

If an object experences no acceleration , no external force acts on it ( T)
beacuse every object has no force has no accelerates
The statement is true but because of "every object that has a force accelerates" not the reason given here.

[qote]If the net force acting on an object is in the x direction the object moves in the x direction ( T )
beacuse when force effet on the object will go same direction of force [/quote]
True

## The Attempt at a Solution

Most of these seem to be of the form "if p then q because if q then p" (which is false logic). Also, as others have tried to point out, an object can move in a straight line, at constant speed, with NO force on it. You don't seem to realize that.

but all my answer are correct ??

jgens
Gold Member
Most of these seem to be of the form "if p then q because if q then p" (which is false logic). Also, as others have tried to point out, an object can move in a straight line, at constant speed, with NO force on it. You don't seem to realize that.
Halls, I assumed that the "because ..." following each question was his/her attempt at justifying the answer (T/F) that he/she gave for the statement above that line. If that's the case, then the questions make sense, it's just that the OP's explanations don't.

jgens
Gold Member
but all my answer are correct ??
Most of your answer are not correct if you've correctly transcribed each statement.