is it true or false that all real function is an antiderivative of some real function but neither real function have an antiderivative?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I still have the doubt!

Definition(Louis Leithold,The Calculus with Analytic Geometry)

Antiderivative: F is antiderivative of f in I if F'(x)=f(x) for all x in I.

The question is all f have some F in some I?

The question is all f is a G of some g in some I?

(Real Analysis)

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# True or false that all real function is an antiderivative

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