1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data If 0 <= f(x) < infinity, then I need to show that e^x > (1 +f(x)/n)^n for x in (0, infinity) 2. Relevant equations 3. The attempt at a solution I'm pretty sure the answer lies in the comparison of the series representation for e^x and writing (1 +f(x)/n)^n out with the binomial theorem. I did so, however I still don't see it.